> "Related" includes those deaths [...] for a drug used something with it that was fatal
No, it does not. Full quote: "In 2012, of the 41,502 drug overdose deaths in the United States, 22,114 (53%) were related to pharmaceuticals.[6]"
So, 53% of drug overdose deaths. Not drug interaction. Nor pharmaceuticals used as directed.
> I recommend you do the analysis
So far, I've provided data, and you arguing semantics. Since you seem to imply deeper insights, I'd appreciate it if you shared your data sources/analysis.
> In the US, opioid pharmaceuticals seem be regarded as "The Great Satan"
I'm not buying that argument, given the amount of opioid usage in the U.S. compared to the rest of the world. (IIRC, close to 100% of hydrocodone and 80% of oxycodone are used in the U.S). Not exactly a "Great Satan" kind of treatment.
> we have an aging population.
Yes. But the aging population is not three times as big as it was '91.
> and the shedding of prejudices that have blocked such recognition
I am all for shedding prejudices that block recognition of useful medication. But for opioid usage, there are questions that are simply not answered:
* Why do >45% of Americans supposedly suffer chronic pain? Compared to ~20% in Europe?[1]
* Why do we require 203M opioid Rx to treat this? That would indicate that the vast majority suffers from severe pain, treatable only with opioids. (Compare to ~30% of pain suffers in Europe[1])
* Why is the amount of overdose deaths 7x bigger than in Europe? [2] (With a larger population in Europe!)
And we need to answer them if we want to use opioids safely & without prejudices. I don't condemn opioid use per se, but I'd really like an explanation of these discrepancies.
No, it does not. Full quote: "In 2012, of the 41,502 drug overdose deaths in the United States, 22,114 (53%) were related to pharmaceuticals.[6]"
So, 53% of drug overdose deaths. Not drug interaction. Nor pharmaceuticals used as directed.
> I recommend you do the analysis
So far, I've provided data, and you arguing semantics. Since you seem to imply deeper insights, I'd appreciate it if you shared your data sources/analysis.
> In the US, opioid pharmaceuticals seem be regarded as "The Great Satan"
I'm not buying that argument, given the amount of opioid usage in the U.S. compared to the rest of the world. (IIRC, close to 100% of hydrocodone and 80% of oxycodone are used in the U.S). Not exactly a "Great Satan" kind of treatment.
> we have an aging population.
Yes. But the aging population is not three times as big as it was '91.
> and the shedding of prejudices that have blocked such recognition
I am all for shedding prejudices that block recognition of useful medication. But for opioid usage, there are questions that are simply not answered:
* Why do >45% of Americans supposedly suffer chronic pain? Compared to ~20% in Europe?[1]
* Why do we require 203M opioid Rx to treat this? That would indicate that the vast majority suffers from severe pain, treatable only with opioids. (Compare to ~30% of pain suffers in Europe[1])
* Why is the amount of overdose deaths 7x bigger than in Europe? [2] (With a larger population in Europe!)
And we need to answer them if we want to use opioids safely & without prejudices. I don't condemn opioid use per se, but I'd really like an explanation of these discrepancies.
[1] http://onlinelibrary.wiley.com/doi/10.1016/j.ejpain.2005.06....
[2] http://www.emcdda.europa.eu/attachements.cfm/att_212359_EN_O...